I know some legal eagle could talk rings around me on this, but to my layman's way of thinking it seems pretty odd that a law passed in 1935 was found unconstitutional last week. I guess what seems so strange to me is that the Irish Constitution was first enacted on July 1, 1937. I haven't seen anything that says that a later amendment changed the Constitution to where it made that law unconstitutional.
The government in power in 1935 was the same government in power in 1937 when the Constitution was written and ratified by referendum. So, the Constitution that was promoted in '37 made unconstitutional a law passed two years earlier by the same government? I don't know, just seems odd to me.